Tack för alla svar!
Så här skriver man på t.ex. Lenco Heaven:
"Shaky, if you would look up the physical formulas about friction, you would (to your big surprise I think) learn that the frictional force between two moving parts is independent of the contact area of these bodies.
Greetings, Hansrudolf"
och vidare typ:
"It does indeed, but if Hansrudolf writes something like this, i tend to believe him.
Maybe Steve will waste a few minutes on us trying to explain it? ropies_help
Yeah, OK wink
There are two simplified scenarios.
A: small contact area, high force per unit area.
You have irregularities of a few molecules on two (otherwise smooth) surfaces digging into each other with a whole load of force to generate your friction.
B: Large contact area, low force per unit area.
You have irregularities of many more molecules on two (otherwise smooth) surfaces digging int each other with somewhat less force to generate your friction.
The different situations add up to the same thing, a few things digging in hard or lots more things digging in more gently. Both give the same result.
As for being counter intuitive, well I see what you mean but it is actually very simple, the understanding just depends how clearly one thinks about the process. This is what physicists do... well they have to be good at something laugh
Crikey I've surprised myself, after a few conciliatory glasses of cider following the World Cup debacle I'm impressed I can even tpye!!!!
Steve."
Vad jag förstår så menar man att, åtminstone i teorin. så blir det ingen skillnad på friktionen i mitt exempel.
Vad som är "lämpligast friktion" i ett givet skivspelarlager drivet av en given motor i en given skivspelare är
dock en annan fråga . . . typ.

Sterio . . . krävs dä tvillingar för å lyssna på´t åsså, typ . . . ?
Sedan mitt andra jag gick bort lyssnar jag mest på monio . . . typ.